24-12-2016, 12:11 PM
Been reading 'American Radio History.com' site where they say in the 1940's that horizontal polarisation is better than vertical for 50-100mhz, at higher frequencies there was no measurable difference, & of course the USA used horizontal polarisation for all TV transmissions. So why did the UK stick with with vertical polarisation for it's high power band 1 stations after 1949? I can understand Crystal Palace using VP as there would be legacy aerials on rooftops for Alexadria Palace & viewers would not be happy if the had to adjust/buy new aerials for HP. But Sutton Coldfield, Holme Moss, Kirk-O-Shotts & Wenvoe were clean starts & could have used HP with no problems as no legacy aerials to worry about. Perhaps second tier medium power TX's such as Divis, Pontop Pike, etc could have used VP for co-channel reduction. Funny how they used HP for VHF/FM till recently which is on the borderline of making no difference..